Did Jesus "become sin"? 2 Cor. 5:21

OR was he a sin offering? Romans 8 and Hebrews 10

2nd Corinthians 5:21 is an interesting verse in the New Testament concerning the relationship of Jesus and sin. It is quoted a lot, but what does it really mean? I am most familiar with the KJV translation,

"For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him."

BUT I was really surprised at how many different ways this verse has been translated! So, let's look at some different Bible translations of this same verse for some additional understanding: (for a complete list of parelell translations you can click here, but the table below is a good summary).

• “For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.” King James Version: (the most common translation of the verse)

• “For him who knew no sin he made to be sin on our behalf; so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.” World English Bible

• “For God took the sinless Christ and poured into him our sins. Then, in exchange, he poured God’s goodness into us!” The Living Bible

• “For he who had not known sin made himself to become sin in your place, that we would become the righteousness of God in him.” Aramaic Plain Bible in English

• “Christ was without sin, but for our sake God made him share our sin in order that in union with him we might share the righteousness of God.” Good News Translation

• “God had Christ, who was sinless, take our sin so that we might receive God's approval through him.” GOD'S WORD Translation

• “For He hath made Him, who knew no sin, to be a sin-offering for us, that in Him we might be made righteous before God.” Worsely New Testament, Mounce Interlinear New Testament, New Living Translation, New Matthew Bible, Tree of Life Version

• “God made this sinless man be a sin offering on our behalf, so that in union with him we might fully share in God’s righteousness.” Complete Jewish Bible, Orthodox Jewish Bible

There are quite a few different conclusions/questions that can be drawn from this verse, depending on which versions/translation you choose:, here are a few examples based on the different translations above:

1.  Did the sinless Jesus become sin?

2.  Did Jesus become sin in my place?

3.  Did Jesus share in our sins?

4.  Was Jesus a sin offering for our sins?

Topic 1: Examination of the Greek word "hamartia" - sin.

So in the Greek text of 2 Corinthians 5:21, the word "hamartian" is used twice and translated as "sin" each time, and it is exactly the same word, no variations. So on the surface it seems to make sense to translate it as the very same word, right?

But, when looking at the different translations, I noticed that some versions translate the word "hamartian" when it occurs the 2nd time in the verse, as "sin offering".

But why would certain Bible translations such as The Complete Jewish Bible, Anderson New Testament, The New Living Translation, Haweis New Testament, Mace New Testament and Worsely New Testament translate the 2nd occurance of "hamartian" in the verse as "sin offering" and not just "sin"?

To answer that, let us look at Leviticus chapter 4 & 5 and Numbers chapter 15 in the Old Testament. These verses talk about sin that was committed unknowingly and/or unintentionally, what to do when sin that becomes known and the sin offering required for it - as well a some other verses. (We will look at the Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament, the Septuagint, for most of our studies.)

(By the way, when I was researching the Greek words in 2 Corinthians 5:21, the Greek word for "know" (ginosko, G1097), as in "he did not know (gnonta, G1097) sin" it brought me to these Old testament passages in the Greek translation of the Old Testament (the Septuagint) which talk about sin that is done unintentionally or unknowingly/without knowledge (agnoia), and when the sin becomes known (gnonta, G1097) to the person, they offer a sacrifice (as in Leviticus 4:14 and many more verses that will be examined further below).

So, back to the topic of sin. In the Greek, hamartano (G264) is a verb meaning "to sin" and hamartia (G266) is a noun from that word that refers to either "sin" or "whatever is brought as an offering for the sin", i.e., a living animal, bird or an offering of flour, (depending on what the person had).

The word 'hamartia', like all Greek nouns, has variations of the word such as "hamartias" or "hamartian", depending on whether it is singular, plural, etc.

Notice in the verses below how the word for "sin" and "sin-offering" are used interchangeably, depending on the context of the verse. (Since there is not separate, additional noun for 'offering' along with the noun for sin, "hamartia", when it's translated as 'sin offering', so I will write it as sin-offering).

(Additionally, this is the same with burnt offerings, drink offerings, grain offerings, etc, - as in, this is how it is translated in English so we can understand what it is, but for example, with "burnt offering" the Greek word there, holokautoma, literally translates as "whole burned", and the English word "offering" is added to it for our understanding, because it is indeed something that is being offered, but it's more of an explanation instead of an exact word-for-word translation. Just an FYI.)

Here are a few examples from Leviticus 4:

Leviticus 4:13-21: Unintentional sin of the whole congregation

13 ‘Now if the whole congregation of Israel should not know and it being unintentionally done... when it becomes known the sin (hamartias) which they have sinned (hamartano), then the assembly shall offer an unblemished young bull for the sin-offering (hamartias)...And he shall do with the bull as he did with the bull as a sin-offering (hamartias)...So the priest shall make atonement for them, and it they will be forgiven of their sin (hamartia) . 21 It is a sin-offering (hamartias) for the assembly.

Leviticus 4:22-26: Unintentional sin of a leader

22 ‘When a leader has sinned, and done something unintentionally... 23 or if his sin (hamartia) which he has sinned comes to his knowledge, he shall bring as his offering a kid of the goats, a male without blemish...24 It is a sin-offering (hamartia). 25 The priest shall take some of the blood of the sin-offering (hamartias)...So the priest shall make atonement for him concerning his sin (hamartias)...

Leviticus 4:27-32: Unintentional sin of a common person (person of the land)

27 ‘If anyone of the people of the land sins unintentionally... 28 or if his sin (hamartia) which he has sinned comes to his knowledge, then he shall bring as his offering a kid of the goats, a female without blemish, for his sin-offering (hamartias) which he has sinned .

32 ‘If he brings a lamb as his sin-offering (hamartian), he shall bring a female without blemish. 33 Then he shall lay his hand on the head of the sin-offering (hamartias), and kill it at the place where they kill the burnt offering. 34 The priest shall take some of the blood of the sin-offering (hamartias) ...35 So the priest shall make atonement for his sin (hamartias) that he has sinned, and it shall be forgiven him.

It is also interesting to note that hamartian - used above in Leviticus 4:32, is the exact word that John the Baptizer uses in the Apostle John's account - and connects it with a lamb.

John 1:29

"The next day John [the baptizer] saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold! The Lamb of God who takes away the sin (hamartian) of the world!"

Before we leave Leviticus chapter 4, I would like to point out that the same word for sin and sin-offering is also there in the Hebrew, as demonstrated in the Orthodox Jewish Bible (translated from Hebrew into English): H2403: chattat (pronounced 'hattat', and is translated as both sin and sin-offering.

Leviticus 4:23-24, 28-29 Orthodox Jewish Bible Translation

Or if his chattat (sin -H2403), wherein he hath sinned, come to his knowledge; he shall bring his korban, a male goat tamim (without blemish);  And he shall lay his hand upon the head of the goat, and slaughter (shachat) it in the place where they slaughter the olah (burnt offering) before Hashem; it is a chattat (sin offering - H2403)... Or if his chattat (sin - H2403), which he hath sinned, come to his knowledge; then he shall bring his korban, a female goat, a female without blemish), for his chattat (sin - H2403) which he hath sinned.  And he shall lay his hand upon the head of the chattat (sin offering - H2403), and slaughter (shachat) the chattat (sin offering - H2403) in the place of the olah (burnt offering).

Leviticus chapter 5 continues talking about unintentional sin or trespass, has the same layout as the verses in Leviticus chapter 4, first stating unintentional sins (and mentions specific kinds of sins/trespasses).

Then, when the person realizes (becomes aware of/ knowledgeable) of the sin, they are told what to bring for a sin-offering or trespass offering. This is for sins/trespasses such as being made unclean (from animal or human source) or speaking thoughtlessly, (verses 2-4), or sinning in regard to the holy things or in breaking even one commandment.

What is interesting about Leviticus 5:7-11 is that if a person who becomes aware of a sin does not have a lamb, then they can offer two turtledoves or two young pigeons, one as a sin-offering (hamartias) and one as a burnt offering.

If he does not have these, then he shall bring as his gift 1/10 of an ephah of fine flour as his sin-offering (hamartias). So it is not necessarily true - as I have often heard it - that it always has to be a life-for-life exchange that involves blood for a sin offering. If an individual sinned, then they could bring based on what they had as an offering for their sin, in this example.

Sin offering for not observing/doing all the commandments

Numbers chapter 15:22-29 also talks about offerings and mentions if something is done unintentionally as far as a sin, then explains the animals that can be used as sin-offerings.

**However, it also mentions that unintentionally NOT DOING all of the commandments also requires a sin offering. I think this could be called a sin of omission [the key word here being miss] because it does not indicate that there was a breaking of a commandment, because not only were they told what NOT to do - they were also commanded what TO DO - and if you didn't do all of those things (even unintentionally, perhaps if you forgot, or one of them slipped your mind) it required an offering.

Numbers 15:22-24

"If you miss entirely (some versions say sin, but the word Greek word hamartano is not there), and do not observe all these commandments which the LORD has spoken to Moses...if it is unintentionally committed, that the whole congregation shall offer one young bull as a burnt offering, as a sweet aroma to the LORD, with its grain offering and its drink offering, according to the ordinance, and one kid of the goats as a sin-offering (hamartias)."

Hebrews chapter 9 tells us that once a year the high priest would go into the inner part behind the curtain and make atonement for any sins that were done in ignorance that had not been atoned for previously and perhaps still remained unknown to the person.

Hebrews 9:7

"But only the high priest entered the second room, and then only once a year, and never without blood, which he offered for himself and for the sins the people had committed in ignorance ( G51, agnoema, without knowing, an oversight or unintentional mistake . (The same word is used in Genesis 43:12, when Joseph's brothers thought silver had been put in their sack as an oversight)."

So, overall, here is the layout of the above verses:

1. person

2. sins (hamartano) unintentionally and/or unknowingly

3. whenever sin (hamartia) becomes known

4. animal/bird/flour offered as sin-offering (hamartia)

The layout of 2 Corinthians 5:21 is similar to the layouts of these Old Testament verses above. Some versions of the English Bible rearrange the structure of the verse, but it is important to know that it is laid out the same in the Greek: it does not begin with "God made him", it begins, as these other verses do, with unknown sin and then the offering for it. You can read the interlinear here.

Order of words in Greek:

 "For the one (referring to Jesus) not having known sin (hamartian) for us a sin-offering (hamartian) was made."

You can see how this verse compares to examples from Leviticus 4 above.

Leviticus 4:27-32 compared to 2 Corinthians 5:21

common person | Jesus

sins unintentionally and/or unknowingly | ***

whenever he knew his sin (hamartia) | knew NO sin (hamartian)

lamb without blemish | Jesus without blemish

offered as sin-offering (hamartian) | offered as a sin-offering (hamartian)

*Notice how the space for the sins part is left BLANK in 2 Corinthians 5:21 concerning Jesus - because he committed NO sin, either unintentionally or unknowingly.

1 Peter 2:22 (quoting Isaiah 53:9)

“Who committed no sin (hamartian), nor was deceit found in His mouth”

[side note: We will further examine the sinlessness of Jesus in a separate post, but it's very striking (to me after thinking about this for a while) how the layout and comparison of this verse really shows the total sinlessness of Jesus, whereas theological interpretations and word order have previously looked like Jesus being "made into sin/becoming sin" (which I don't believe he was) was the meaning of this statement by Paul.]

 Overall, here are 2 things to understand:

1.  Both sin and sin-offering use the same Greek word, "hamartia" (G266), (and whichever word ending it has based on the noun case or number (hamartia, harmartias, hamartian). So, we can see that whether hamartia is translated as "sin" or "sin offering" seems to depend ONLY on context, whether it is referring to something someone did, or an animal or a measure or flour, and it does not depend on the Greek word "hamartia" (G266) itself.

2. Whenever a commandment (do so something or not to do something) was broken or not kept, this was something that required a sin offering. If/when the person became aware of it, it required an offering - and if they never became aware of it, it also required an offering, once a year, by the high priest. If the person didn't have the specific animal prescribed for offering, provisions could be made, based on what the person had.

Conclusion 1: So, can we say that there is a possible valid reason that some of the New Testament translations translate "hamartian" as sin offering in 2nd Corinthians 5:21? Yes, it does seem to be accurate to translate "hamartian" or "hamartia/hamartias" as either sin or an animal killed as a sin offering, based on the fact that the word was translated as both/either of these things in the Greek Old Testament (Septuagint, LXX) and both/either of these things in the Hebrew Old Testament as well, depending on the context it is used in, and not in just based on the word "hamartian" (or Hebrew "chattat") itself.

Topic 1, Part 2: Romans 8:3

I also would like to additionally point out Romans 8:3 because there is a similar situation in this verse as well with "hamartias" sometimes being translated as either "sin" or "sin [offering], depending on which version you read.

Romans 8:3 (King James Version)

"For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sin(ful) (hamartias) flesh, and for sin (hamartias), condemned sin (hamartias) in the flesh"

*(There are actually far fewer variations on this verse than 2 Corinthians 5:21 has. About half of the translations of Romans 8:3 translate the second occurance of "hamartias" as "for sin" or "because of/on account of sin", and the others translate it as "sin offering" or "sacrifice for sin".)

• “For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh.” King James Version (KJV) English Standard Version (ESV), many other versions

• “For what the law could not do in that it was weak through the flesh, God did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, on account of sin: He condemned sin in the flesh.” New King James Version (NKJV)

• “For in that the law being powerless to do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God having sent His own Son, in likeness of sinful flesh, and concerning sin, gave judgment against sin in the flesh.” NET Bible, Literal Emphasis Translation

• “For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh.” New International Version (NIV), Berean Study Bible, New American Standard Bible (NASB), Worsley New Testament, Anderson New Testament, English Revised Version, HCSB

• “The Law of Moses cannot do this, because our selfish desires make the Law weak. But God set you free when he sent his own Son to be like us sinners and to be a sacrifice for our sin. God used Christ's body to condemn sin.” New Living Translation, Contemporary English Version, Weymouth New Testament, Mace New Testament

So it seems to be the case that in this verse also, that sometimes 'hamartias" is translated as either "sin" or "sin offering". I don't think I would say one is correct and another isn't, but I think I appreciate the translations most that use "offering for" and "sacrifice for" sin in italics, to indicate an explanation.

Conclusion to part 2: So for both of these verses, 2 Corinthians 5:21 and Romans 8:3, it does seem accurate to translate "hamartia" as either sin or sin offering/sacrifice, based on the use of hamartia being used in the Greek Old Testament (Septuagint, LXX) as the word for either sin that a person did or the animal that was killed as the sacrifice/offering for that sin.

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Topic 1 part 3: Hebrews Chapter 10:6 and 10:8

Now this in is important! The book of Hebrews is very helpful in understanding the fulfillment of Jesus as our sin-offering!

The 3rd and 4th verses in which "hamartias" is translated as "sin offering" in most English Bibles is Hebrews 10:6 and 10:8. The writer of Hebrews is talking about Jesus here.

Hebrews 10:4-10
4 For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and goats could take away sins (hamartia, G266).
5 Therefore coming into the world, He says: "Sacrifice and offering You have not desired, but a *body (see verse 10) You have prepared me.
6 With burnt-offerings and sin-offerings (hamartias, G266) you were not pleased.
7 Then I said, ‘Here I am, it is written about Me in the scroll: I have come to do Your will, O God.’ ”
8 Saying above, "Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and sin-offerings (hamartias, G266), You have not desired, nor have You delighted in" which are offered according to the Law."
9 then He said, “Behold, I have come to do Your will, O God.” He takes away the first that He may establish the second.
10 By that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once.
11 And every priest stands ministering daily and offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins (hamartia, G266).
12 But this Man, after He had offered one sacrifice for sins (hamartia, G266) forever, sat down at the right hand of God,

The quotes here from the Old Testament in this chapter from Hebrews 10 are from Psalm 40:6-8. In the Greek Septuagint (OT), every instance of "hamartias" in those verses is translated as something along the lines of "sin offering" or "sacrifice for sin" or something "for sin".

Psalm 40:6 Sacrifice and offering You did not desire; *My ears You have opened. Burnt offering and sin offering (hamartias, G266) You did not require.
*(some versions say my ears you have 'pierced' - as in slaves having their ears pierced to serve their masters for life instead of going free)

In Hebrews 10 above and the quote from Psalm 40:6 in the Greek Septuagint, every instance of "hamartias" in those verses is translated as something along the lines of "sin offering" or "sacrifice for sin" or something "for sin".

Psalm 40:6 (Greek Septuagint (LXX))

• Sacrifice and offering thou didst not desire... burnt offering (holokautoma) and sin offering (hamartias) hast thou not required. (KJV)

• You do not want sacrifices and offerings; you do not ask for animals burned whole on the altar or for sacrifices to take away sins (hamartias). (Good News Translation)

• Sacrifice and offering you did not desire.. burnt offerings and sin offerings (G266) you did not require. (NIV)

Hebrews 10:6 &8

• Verse 6: In burnt offerings (holokautoma) and sacrifices for sin (hamartias - G266) thou hast had no pleasure,
  Verse 8: Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin (hamartias, G266) thou wouldest not (KJV)

• Verse 6: You are not pleased with animals burned whole on the altar or with sacrifices to take away sins (G266).
  Verse 8: You neither want nor are you pleased with sacrifices and offerings or with animals burned on the altar and the sacrifices to take away sins (hamartias, G266) (Good News Translation)

• Verse 6: with burnt offerings and sin offerings (G266) you were not pleased.
  Verse 8: Sacrifices and offerings, burnt offerings and sin offerings (hamartias, G266) you did not desire (NIV)

So in Hebrews 10:6 and 10:8, because these are both quoting what is in Psalm 40:6, which is in the Greek text as "hamartias (G266)", it is translated in Hebrews as sacrifice for sin and offering for sin, so that the meanings match up, but instead of translating it directly as sin-offering, the words 'sacrifices' and 'offerings' are added in, as you can see below in these screenshots from the NKJV.

I want the reader to see these just to show how they are translated from the Greek to the English. Interesting! You can download the Blue Letter Bible App and see this for yourself!

It is also interesting to note that in verse 5 of Hebrews chapter 10 above, it says " a body you have prepared for me" and in verse 10 the same word "body" is used, and says "we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once". This additionally points out that the body of the Jesus was an offering, not that his body became a sinful body or became sin itself.

Conclusion, part 3:

So in Hebrews 10:6 and 10:8, there is no way to translate "hamartia" as anything other than a sin-offering or sacrifice for sin. So, does it make sense then, when it comes to Jesus and his relationship to sin, to describe him an ANYTHING other than a sin-offering or sacrifice for sin? Does it also make sense to translate "hamartia" as sin-offering in 2 Corinthians 5:21 and Romans 8:3?

I think from examining the 4 verses above, and the layout of Leviticus 4:27-32, it is accurate to conclude that the Greek word "hamartias" in 1 Corinthians 5:21 and Romans 8:3 (G266) can be translated as "sin-offering", or at least sin (offering) or sin-offering, so that the reader has an understanding of the possible/intended meaning here, based on the use of the Greek word to mean both/either "sin" or "sin-offering" in the Greek translation of the Old Testament, and the same Hebrew word "chattat (hatt'at) - (H2403)" also used interchangeably as either "sin" or "sin-offering" in the original Hebrew text.

So, back to the questions we asked at the beginning, based on the different translations of 2 Corinthians 5:21:

1.  Did the sinless Jesus become sin?

2.  Did Jesus become sin in my place?

3.  Did Jesus share in our sins?

4.  Was Jesus a sin offering for our sins?

I think we can draw the conclusion that #4 is the most accurate translation of this verse. BUT, even if we do not translate "hamartia" as sin offering, and just translate it as "sin", we still have the question that there is debate about: did Jesus "become" sin and take on the sins of everyone and bear the guilt of those sins, OR did he remain a sinless human being?

This has implications, because many Christians believe (based not only on their churches' teaching, but also on the many ways the verse is translated that we looked at initially) that Jesus became sin in our place and his death was punishment for those sins, and that Jesus took my place on the cross. There is also the popular theory that because Jesus became sin, then God had to turn his back on him and forsake him, because God can't be in the presence of sin.

These are important theological distinctions. So please continue in reading the related articles on the sinlessness of Jesus, as need to look at some other aspects of these verses for more clues in understanding the relationship of Jesus and sin. Thank you for reading! Thank you for reading! I hope this helps bring us to a better understanding of the sinless sin-offering of Jesus' body!

Did Jesus "bear" our sins? Or take them away?
Jesus: the sinless and spotless sacrifice
The Blood and Offering of Jesus